Guys,
I have a question. Am a bit of a newbie in the options world.
I set up a bear put spread on ACOR 2 days ago.
Buy 100 Jul 36 Puts @ 2.3
Sell 100 Jul 34 Puts @ 2.4
I know a bear put spread is a net debit. However in this instance, this was a net credit. Looking at my risk graph, i see that at maturity my maximum loss is my net credit in this instance. Am i an idiot or is this a free trade? Although the stock closed yesterday at 39, i am up $11,500 dollars on a trade that credited me with $1000 in the first place.
Could the implied volatility difference between the 2 strikes have been so far apart to create this credit? What am i missing?? Thanks.
I have a question. Am a bit of a newbie in the options world.
I set up a bear put spread on ACOR 2 days ago.
Buy 100 Jul 36 Puts @ 2.3
Sell 100 Jul 34 Puts @ 2.4
I know a bear put spread is a net debit. However in this instance, this was a net credit. Looking at my risk graph, i see that at maturity my maximum loss is my net credit in this instance. Am i an idiot or is this a free trade? Although the stock closed yesterday at 39, i am up $11,500 dollars on a trade that credited me with $1000 in the first place.
Could the implied volatility difference between the 2 strikes have been so far apart to create this credit? What am i missing?? Thanks.