Box,
"the theory goes out the window". That's certainly a good description. For all intents and purposes this may be correct insofar time-value is virtuallly non-existent and therefore, zero implied volatility. OTM's will priced on what mm's can get away with I suppose. However, if the prevailing volatilty is very high, then there will still be a premium to intrinsic.
Prices will (should) still represent non-violation of the arbitrage principle.
Grant.