Understanding Account Balances

[RealQuanto]

At TDA (an US brokerage firm, soon fully part of Schwab) I've a CashAcct (ie. not MarginAcct).
I'm nearly "fully invested", only had the following remaining cash for new trades:

Yesterday my "cashAvailableForTrading" was $331.11, and "unsettledCash" was $0.0.

I then opened 7 (actually 6 + 1 using 2 orders) CashSecuredPut normal US option contracts
(ie. ShortPut plus $K as collateral held back by broker) with Strike(K) = 0.50 and Premium = 0.25.
Of course the multiplier is the usual 100. The commission is $0.65 per contract.

The cashAvailableForTrading value fell to $1.46 and unsettledCash went to $520.35 .

Today, the unsettledCash has settled and went back to $0.0, (ie. the usual T+1 settlement for option sales),
and cashAvailableForTrading luckily went to $151.46 .

At first glance it looks good b/c the credit I received from the short sale has finally
been rewarded (made awailable for further trading) after the T+1 settlement time.
BUT: is there not missing the proceeds from the 7th contract?
Ie. I think the cashAvailableForTrading should rather be 176.46 instead of 151.46, since 0.25 * 100 * 7 = 175 .

Maybe I need to take a pause from thinking on this all .
Can any of you please check/verify this, since more eyes see more? Thx.

Anybody else doing similar trading, ie. trading US markets using a CashAcct ?

 

[RealQuanto]

The broker's calc seems to be correct, as follows:
331.11 - 7 * (25 + 0.65 + 0.01) = 151.49 (ie. almost 151.46, the diff of $0.03 is due to different fees, sometimes 0.01, sometimes 0.03 etc...).

BUT: the broker's system today behaved differently than it did in the above case, although in both cases the same type of trade was done:
in the above case the credit was released only on the next day (T+1 settlement), but today the credit has been made available immediately!...
I just wonder why the system behaves differently.
I hope it behaved differently b/c it maybe has been fixed since the last time...