Strangelydifferent
Junior member
- Messages
- 25
- Likes
- 0
Hi
I'd read a while ago about using a 1% rule as a guide to limiting individual risks in the context of one's own personal assets. I've also begun to wonder if everyone sees it the same way, so I'd be interested to see what folks think.
Here is some context so we are all on the same footing:
- lets say "personal wealth" means savings, property (that part which isn't owned by the mortgage company!) and maybe other investments in varying degrees of liquidity.
- shall we say that an "individual risk" is the amount you might realistically lose between placing a trade and it hitting (or zooming straight past) a stop loss.
So, the above description forms one definition. Suppose though you have several trades out at the same time (shares again in this example, lets say they are all position trades lasting a few weeks) and they all suffer the same correlated risk in a market correction.
One might have picked them so that they didn't appear to be likely to suffer correlated risks, but one might still get it wrong. What approach do folks take then?
Any thoughts appreciated.
Strangelydifferent
I'd read a while ago about using a 1% rule as a guide to limiting individual risks in the context of one's own personal assets. I've also begun to wonder if everyone sees it the same way, so I'd be interested to see what folks think.
Here is some context so we are all on the same footing:
- lets say "personal wealth" means savings, property (that part which isn't owned by the mortgage company!) and maybe other investments in varying degrees of liquidity.
- shall we say that an "individual risk" is the amount you might realistically lose between placing a trade and it hitting (or zooming straight past) a stop loss.
So, the above description forms one definition. Suppose though you have several trades out at the same time (shares again in this example, lets say they are all position trades lasting a few weeks) and they all suffer the same correlated risk in a market correction.
One might have picked them so that they didn't appear to be likely to suffer correlated risks, but one might still get it wrong. What approach do folks take then?
Any thoughts appreciated.
Strangelydifferent