Hello all,
I've been reading the book Market Wizards lately (great book btw) and one of the things that confuses me about these super traders is their money management strategies when they are trading aggressively. Some of these traders would trade very aggressively when they knew that they were in the right trade or when they knew a great opportunity was about to present itself, and they would take on huge amounts of leverage for that trade. As a result, they were able to generate huge fortunes relatively quickly (and losses in some cases).
However, the question that baffles me is that these traders also believe that you should never risk more that 1-3% risk with each trade (and that sometimes includes trades that are correlated as well). This is one of the golden rules of trading that these super traders live by, but if thats the case then is this 1-3% risk rule broken when traders purposely trade aggressively? - or is the risk still the same? - in which case how can one trade be described as more aggressive than the other when the level of risk is the same?
Perhaps I'm missing something really obvious here?
Thanks,
Pi
I've been reading the book Market Wizards lately (great book btw) and one of the things that confuses me about these super traders is their money management strategies when they are trading aggressively. Some of these traders would trade very aggressively when they knew that they were in the right trade or when they knew a great opportunity was about to present itself, and they would take on huge amounts of leverage for that trade. As a result, they were able to generate huge fortunes relatively quickly (and losses in some cases).
However, the question that baffles me is that these traders also believe that you should never risk more that 1-3% risk with each trade (and that sometimes includes trades that are correlated as well). This is one of the golden rules of trading that these super traders live by, but if thats the case then is this 1-3% risk rule broken when traders purposely trade aggressively? - or is the risk still the same? - in which case how can one trade be described as more aggressive than the other when the level of risk is the same?
Perhaps I'm missing something really obvious here?
Thanks,
Pi