yakatan
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I'm new to fundamental analysis and would like to ask a question.
If a company achieves EPS of £1 in 2007 and the est EPS is also £1 in 2008 then what does that mean in terms of PEG? The growth rate is zero so is PEG of no use in this situation?
I think that £1 per share earnings is quite respectable when the price of a share is at £5. How would analyst view a company that makes the same EPS each year meaning earnings growth is zero but £1 of earnings is still high?
				
			If a company achieves EPS of £1 in 2007 and the est EPS is also £1 in 2008 then what does that mean in terms of PEG? The growth rate is zero so is PEG of no use in this situation?
I think that £1 per share earnings is quite respectable when the price of a share is at £5. How would analyst view a company that makes the same EPS each year meaning earnings growth is zero but £1 of earnings is still high?