(I have to confess that I am using spreadbets, but I guess that the price of the spreadbets are related to the futures they are based upon).
I have had conflicting advice on this question which is why I thought I would raise it here.
I'm a long term buy and hold man using spreadbets as a cheap and geared way to invest in indices, currencies and bullion. In the past I have been using rolling cash instruments but they are of course hideously expensive to finance. I did experiment with some monthly contracts in Oil, but in some months the cost of rolling over was far higher than it would have been if I had been using a rolling cash instrument. I decided that a predictable but expensive method was better than what appeared to be a randomly expensive method.
I've been told that the difference in price between a quarterly and a rolling cash only reflects the cost of carry. In other words if the opening price of GBPUSD rolling cash is adjusted by .00011 for every night that I hold it then the rolling quarterly will be lower than the rolling cash by about .00007 times the number of days to expiry (the rolling cash daily figure is larger because it is loaded).
However from my experience of trading the FTSE futures with IB is that it was quite possible for the DEC contract to be higher than the spot value and the MAR contract to be lower - it would seem that the price of the future is more to do with the expected level of the instrument at expiry.
So can anybody advise. Is there a simple explanation? Is it cost of carry or expectation or a combination of both? Or is it more art than science.
Many thanks,
John.
I have had conflicting advice on this question which is why I thought I would raise it here.
I'm a long term buy and hold man using spreadbets as a cheap and geared way to invest in indices, currencies and bullion. In the past I have been using rolling cash instruments but they are of course hideously expensive to finance. I did experiment with some monthly contracts in Oil, but in some months the cost of rolling over was far higher than it would have been if I had been using a rolling cash instrument. I decided that a predictable but expensive method was better than what appeared to be a randomly expensive method.
I've been told that the difference in price between a quarterly and a rolling cash only reflects the cost of carry. In other words if the opening price of GBPUSD rolling cash is adjusted by .00011 for every night that I hold it then the rolling quarterly will be lower than the rolling cash by about .00007 times the number of days to expiry (the rolling cash daily figure is larger because it is loaded).
However from my experience of trading the FTSE futures with IB is that it was quite possible for the DEC contract to be higher than the spot value and the MAR contract to be lower - it would seem that the price of the future is more to do with the expected level of the instrument at expiry.
So can anybody advise. Is there a simple explanation? Is it cost of carry or expectation or a combination of both? Or is it more art than science.
Many thanks,
John.