acerungood
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Hi All,
I'm currently working on a mathematical strategy based on taking random trades in random markets but wanted to double-check my figures.🧐
Obviously, we can be pretty sure that if you enter a trade in a random market, at a random time, in a random direction (short/long) with a risk of 1:1, you will be successful 50% of the time. Either it hits your stop or your target, it can't go in between.
However, I've applied similar logic for if you enter a "random" trade with a risk of 2:1 - you will be successful 33% of the time (1/3).
This is the intuitive answer, but I was wondering if this could differ slightly from the 1:1 example due to market volatility? Of course, in theory, you will be meeting a "random" amount of volatility which could favour or not favour your 2:1 but would you still expect a "true odds" return of 1/3?
Be interested to hear your thoughts.
Cheers
I'm currently working on a mathematical strategy based on taking random trades in random markets but wanted to double-check my figures.🧐
Obviously, we can be pretty sure that if you enter a trade in a random market, at a random time, in a random direction (short/long) with a risk of 1:1, you will be successful 50% of the time. Either it hits your stop or your target, it can't go in between.
However, I've applied similar logic for if you enter a "random" trade with a risk of 2:1 - you will be successful 33% of the time (1/3).
This is the intuitive answer, but I was wondering if this could differ slightly from the 1:1 example due to market volatility? Of course, in theory, you will be meeting a "random" amount of volatility which could favour or not favour your 2:1 but would you still expect a "true odds" return of 1/3?
Be interested to hear your thoughts.
Cheers