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What's goin' on, 'ere?
This is a discussion on What's goin' on, 'ere? within the Options forums, part of the Financial Markets category; In today’s (Friday) DAX options I noticed a few conspicuous (very deep in-the-money) trades in the calls: Jun 5400 at ...
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| | #1 |
| Legendary Member Join Date: Jun 2006 Posts: 2,352
| What's goin' on, 'ere?
In today’s (Friday) DAX options I noticed a few conspicuous (very deep in-the-money) trades in the calls: Jun 5400 at a premium of 2,175 (almost 2,200 points itm, underlying at 7596, 25 points discount); Sep 5400 at 2,233 (2,250 points itm, underlying at 7652, 27 points discount); Dec 5100 at 2,605 (2,643 points itm, underlying at 7743, 38 points discount); Dec 5200 at 2,498 (2,543 points itm, underlying at 7734, 45 points discount). Apart from being relatively cheap, what’s the rationale behind these? Why use options so deep itm? Obviously, I stand to be corrected re the following. My guess is someone’s running a book. Effectively, all these have a delta of almost 1.0 and zero iv. Therefore, one could sell (covered), for eg, 2 (?) x 0.5 deltas at an iv c. 16% (Jun 7600 last trade at 139). How many could be sold and still be covered? Theta is non-existent, but what about the vega (I suspect it’s positive but negligible)? Next, I looked at the open interest. For calls and puts from strikes 4200 through to around 8200, strikes 200 points apart have open interest greater than the intermediate strikes. For example, Jun calls (strike first, open interest second): 4200: 4,006 4250: 0 4300: 0 4350: 3 4400: 4,849 4500: 245 4600: 4,020 4700: 140 4800: 4,306 4900: 4,727 and 4,726 for the puts – the exception and obviously part of the same trade 5000: 15,211. The pattern is similar for Jun puts except 4-5 times larger. Here’s Dec’s: 4200: 16,993 (calls), 26,308 (puts) 4400: 33,830 (calls), 45,028 (puts) 4600: 20,004 (calls), 27,109 (puts) 4800: 13,557 (calls), 35,777 (puts) Any comments welcome (apart from, 'I should get out more'). Grant. |
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The post above is recommended by: NotQuiteRandom |
| | #2 |
| Veteran Member Join Date: Jan 2005 Posts: 773
| As a substitute for an outright in the underlying ?
__________________ Good judgment comes from experience. Experience comes from bad judgment. |
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| | #3 |
| Legendary Member Join Date: Jun 2006 Posts: 2,352
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Profit,“a substitute for an outright in the underlying ?” Ok. But what is the advantage/difference? Bit quiet round here these days, isn’t it? Grant . |
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| Legendary Member | Is that bullish or bearish? Thanks.
__________________ Your trading account tells you everything you need to know about you as a trader and a person |
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| | #5 |
| Senior Member Join Date: Dec 2006 Posts: 301
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Hi Grantx, There are numerous reasons why these trades might take place. A few include: 1) A partial hedge of some more exotic structure (structured derivative, exotic option etc.) with some degree of embedded deep ITM optionality. 2) As above, part of some index or other fund with a built in stop but requiring a delta of 1. For example, many of the capital guaranteed funds combine deep ITM options with a CPPI futures strategy to target n% of the payout on an index with max loss of zero at some future time. 3) One leg of a surface trade (mean reversion based trading of multiple points on the vol surface). Trading ITM with some greeks hedged may give an exposure to a parameter (probably implied vol) that is desirable relative to the same parameter at another point on the surface. Using put call parity we should be able to gain the same exposure using the ITM option in question's opposite delta on the other side of the put / call chain but this may not be feasible for any number of reasons (liquidity etc). 4) I should get on with my research but, last suggestion for now... market maker balancing some unhedged greek exposure at a low implied vol. Lots of other possibilities but hope these simulate some thought on a few... NQR
__________________ Ex nihilo, nihil fit. |
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| | #6 |
| Legendary Member Join Date: Jun 2006 Posts: 2,352
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NQR,Thanks for the (usual) detailed explanations. If convenient, could you comment on my remark: Assuming a delta of 1.0, “one could sell (covered), for eg, 2 x 0.5 deltas.” And where would risks lie (gamma of the shorts)? Grant. |
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| | #7 | |
| Veteran Member Join Date: Jan 2005 Posts: 773
| Quote:
Think I've probably mis-read your original question / suggestion ?
__________________ Good judgment comes from experience. Experience comes from bad judgment. | |
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| | #8 |
| Legendary Member Join Date: Jun 2006 Posts: 2,352
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Profit,I don’t disagree with your suggestion but I’m trying to understand any basis for the original set-up. In addition to NQR’s suggestions above, deep itm (calls and puts) going to the far months of 2008 and beyond suggest to me possibly a market-maker loading up on cheap options, against which numerous strikes can be sold. Grant. |
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Profit,