Discounting anti-lulz

Something I could never really get my head around...

With bond you have a par which you can use as a basis for valuation techniques but how can you discount equities which have a constantly changing share price?

Should you look at implied yields from issuance date and how would that work when issuance is a dilution of value, of sorts?

Should you go way back to the IPO and look at each issuance separately?

Is this barking up the wrong tree?

And don't even get me started on equities discount factor components! Or do, whatever.

Suppose I'm just doing some aloud thinking about this madness and would enjoy some company in discussion.

u do 'em like a perpetuity innit. PV of all future dividends.

(there are other ways too obv)

Well yeh but that's boll0cks though isn't it.

and anyway what price would you use? yesterday? Today? Tomorrow? Last year? ya get me blood?

discounting for the new regime my allocation of anti-lulz has been exhausted.

Sorry I can't help you anymore.

new regime?

my threads get no hits

you are barking up the wrong tree. i don't even think your in the same forest as the right tree let alone barking up it. to put it simply, you project cash flows into the future, discount these back to the present and then alter this for capital structure i.e debt/cash. the biggest thing this simplistic definition misses is perpetuity. whilst a bond isn't a perpetual security, equity is which means at some stage you have to fudge the discounting. is that what you wanted to know?

Well this is how I did it in the past - well the way I was taught- but I had to fudge the discounting to 40 yrs or so to balance(ish) as I have no way of producing accurate CFP (who does?) so I assumed that this way wrong/not really used. Then we have the discount factor problem. WACC?