Lot sizes vs spreadbetting

This is a discussion on Lot sizes vs spreadbetting within the Forex forums, part of the Markets category; Some guy gave me a system - but the results of his equity curve are based on 1 lot contract. ...

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Old Nov 1, 2017, 4:50pm   #1
Joined Jan 2008
Lot sizes vs spreadbetting

Some guy gave me a system - but the results of his equity curve are based on 1 lot contract. (IT was for EURUSD future contract)

How do I translate this into spreadbetting language?

He made 80,000 pips over 2000 trades - but this meant buying 1 lot contract size per trade.
If I instead buy £1 a pip how many pips would I have made in the same period?
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 5:18pm   #2
Joined Aug 2004
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Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
He made 80,000 pips over 2000 trades
Quote:
Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
If I instead buy £1 a pip how many pips would I have made in the same period?
His expectancy is apparently +40 pips per trade, on balance. At your proposed stake that's +£40 per trade, so +£80,000 in total.

If it's been honestly and accurately reported to you, if it isn't backfitted, if - going forward - the performance remains unchanged, if you can match his outcomes exactly by spreadbetting, and if your dealing costs aren't significantly different from his.

Depending on a whole range of variables and details you haven't specified, those might just turn out to be very significant "ifs": in my experience, they always do, when "some guy has given someone a system". This time next year, Rodney, we'll be millionaires.
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 5:30pm   #3
Joined Jan 2008
qwertyuiop1 started this thread Are you sure though? So what you are saying is that buying 1 lot is the equivalent of trading £1 per pip yes?

If that is the case then you are correct.

But what if 1 lot equates to £10 per pip in the spreadbetting world?
Then that means if I go £1 per pip I would have made £8,000 - not £80,000.

So the crux of my query is - does one lot of EURUSD definitely equate to buying £1 per pip in spreadbetting?
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 11:10pm   #4
Joined Oct 2015
Quote:
Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
Some guy gave me a system - but the results of his equity curve are based on 1 lot contract. (IT was for EURUSD future contract)

How do I translate this into spreadbetting language?

He made 80,000 pips over 2000 trades - but this meant buying 1 lot contract size per trade.
If I instead buy £1 a pip how many pips would I have made in the same period?
you've been a member since 2008 and are asking such a basic question? i dont get it
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 11:15pm   #5
Joined Jan 2008
qwertyuiop1 started this thread
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Originally Posted by Kaeso View Post
you've been a member since 2008 and are asking such a basic question? i dont get it
Wow ! What an irritating person you are mr keyboard warrior.

So I'll give you a chance to guess it. Can you figure it out ?
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 11:32pm   #6
Joined Oct 2015
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Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
Wow ! What an irritating person you are mr keyboard warrior.

So I'll give you a chance to guess it. Can you figure it out ?
i dont get this either
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 11:37pm   #7
Joined Jan 2008
qwertyuiop1 started this thread Ok. Don't worry yourself. Looks like you don't get a whole lot.
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Old Nov 1, 2017, 11:46pm   #8
Joined Oct 2015
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Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
Ok. Don't worry yourself. Looks like you don't get a whole lot.
cool thanks

Quote:
Originally Posted by qwertyuiop1 View Post
...He made 80,000 pips over 2000 trades - but this meant buying 1 lot contract size per trade.
If I instead buy £1 a pip how many pips would I have made in the same period?
asking THIS after 9+ years...


Last edited by Kaeso; Nov 2, 2017 at 12:01am.
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